Dear Sir
I approach these questions with a prayer that we both may arrive at a better understanding of the God we worship by my participation here.
PERSONHOOD
- Do you agree or disagree that person/personhood includes self-awareness, awareness of others, speaking, thinking, has a will, memory, can say ‘you’ and ‘me,’ etc.? Yes, in the sense of the modern definition of “person."
- If you disagree with the previous question, can you explain what personhood is? Theologically, we must understand “person” in the sense of “mask” since it comes in the Bible from the acting stage. Thus the understanding of persona must be allowed.
- Does the biblical God (i.e., Exodus 3:14-15) possess personhood? Yes. When we speak of God as three persons, we are using the term in its ancient sense; when we speak of God as one person we mean it in the modern sense.
GOD - How do you define your oneness position as it relates to God? God is one sentient Being, Who has self-revealed Himself in three mode/manifestations/persons: Father, Son and Holy Spirit.
- Though you do not agree with the Trinity, is the Trinity three gods? The biblical Trinity is the one Sentient Being having existence simultaneously in three modes/manifestations/persons. The Social Trinity, as you teach, is blatant tritheism.
- Though you do not agree with the Trinity, is the Trinity three persons in one person? Yes. Understood in this manner: When we speak of God as three persons, we are using the term in its ancient sense (persona); when we speak of God as one person we mean it in the modern sense (self rational sentient Being).
- Though you do not agree with the Trinity, is the Trinity three persons in one God? Yes. Understood in this manner: When we speak of God as three persons, we are using the term in its ancient sense (persona); when we speak of one God we mean one self rational sentient Being—the Autotheos.
- What is the systematic approach the Trinitarians use to conclude the Trinity doctrine? Because Social Trinitarians, like yourself, love to multiply gods, when different attributes of deity are found in Scripture, these attributes are pulled from the essence of the deity and dressed in their own garb as distinct god-persons, these persons being rational with their own centers of intellect. You will disagree, but that is how I see you.
- What verse or verses do you believe refute the doctrine of the Trinity? There are many, but the violence done to the Shema would be a good starting point: Deuteronomy 6:4; see also 1 Corinthians 8:6. Because “Almighty” is superlative (there can be but ONE) Revelation 1:8 should make the list.
- Was God in the mode/form of The Father, in the Old Testament? Yes.
- Was God in the mode/form of Jesus, in the New Testament? We teach the Dual Nature of Christ. Thus, we understand the deity nature of Jesus to be the “Son of God” mode of the Autotheos we understand the humanity of Jesus to be the “Son of Man.”
- Is God now in the mode/form of the Holy Spirit? As Modalists we believe God is Father, Son and Holy Spirit simultaneously.
- What is the name of God (With Scripture references)? Yehowshuwa: As best we can tell the name of God as related to the Old Covenant is, “Yahweh” (Ex 6:3). Through the Incarnation Yahweh added to His identity and mission the work of salvation—thus the Hebrew “Yasha” (meaning: O save) is added to Yahweh to give us Yehowshuwa. Yehowshuwa comes into English as “Jesus.” (Matthew 1:21)
JESUS - When Jesus was walking on the earth 2000 years ago, was he a person? Yes.
- When Jesus was walking on the earth 2000 years ago, did he have two natures: divine and human? Yes.
- When Jesus was walking on the earth 2000 years ago, did he speak as one person or two persons? He spoke from His Godhood and His manhood separately, but as one person.
- Did Jesus’ human nature ever speak while the divine nature was not speaking? If so, where? Yes. Ergo, in the Garden Prayer (Matthew 26:39).
- Did Jesus’ divine nature ever speak while the human nature was not speaking? If so, where? Yes. Revelation 1:8.
- If your answer to the previous question is ‘No’, then which nature did Jesus possess 2000 years ago? N/A
- Is Jesus a man right now? Jesus “has” humanity right now. (1 Timothy 2:5).
- Does Jesus presently have two natures: divine and human? Yes.
- When Jesus was walking on the earth 2000 years ago, was He indwelt by God the Father? Yes.
- Does Jesus exist right now? Yes.
- Does Jesus exist right now, as a person? Yes.
- If you affirm that Jesus exists right now as a person, does he possess both divine and human natures? Yes.
- If you affirm that presently Jesus has one nature, which nature is it, human or divine? N/A
- If you deny that Jesus exists right now as a person, can you please clarify what happened to Him? N/A
- Is Jesus, presently, the same person as the Father? Jesus has existence on two planes: as God and as Man. As God He remains the Father incarnate; as man He is the humanity assumed by God the Father. One person.
- If Jesus is not presently the same person as the Father, then who is he? Speaking of Jesus’ deity: It is not, strictly speaking, correct to say “the Son is the Father,” but it is biblically correct to say ”He who became the Son is the Father.” Speaking of Jesus’ humanity it ,strictly speaking, is not correct to say the man Christ Jesus is God, but it is biblically correct to say that “The humanity of Jesus is the humanity of God.
- Who was Jesus praying to in the Garden in Luke 22:42. The Father OUTSIDE the Incarnation.
- At Jesus’ baptism, when the Ïather, the Son, and the Holy Spirit [were all] present, were they all the same person? “NO,” in the ancient meaning of the word (mask—persona), but ‘YES” in the modern meaning to the word (self rational person).
- At the return of Christ, is it Jesus who returns? Yes.
- If it is Jesus who returns, than is Jesus existing right now is a person in heaven? Yes.
ATONEMENT - Did God the Father indwell the body of Jesus on the cross? Yes.
- Did God the Father leave the body of Jesus before Jesus’ death on the cross? No.
- If you affirm that only the human nature of Jesus died on the cross, then how is the sacrifice of divine value? N/A
SIN AND SALVATION - Do agree or disagree that salvation is being delivered from the righteous judgment of God? Yes.
- Do you agree or disagree that salvation includes being forgiven of all of our sins? Agree.
- Do you agree or disagree that justification is being declared legally righteous according to the law? Agree.
- Is it possible to lose one’s salvation? Yes.
- If it is possible to lose one’s salvation, then what must a person do to lose it? Deny Christ.
- If it is possible to lose one’s salvation, then what must a person do to keep it? Remain in the true Gospel.
- If it is possible to lose one’s salvation, then is it possible to regain one’s salvation? I do not know.
- If it is possible to regain one’s salvation, then what must a person do to regain it? N/A
- Is water baptism by immersion necessary for salvation? Baptism with the invocation of Jesus’ name is necessary for salvation; the mode of baptism is not. The Lord’s church has, from ancient times, recognized the baptism of blood and baptism of intent.
- Is water baptism by immersion with the formula of “In Jesus’ name” necessary for salvation? The name is necessary, the mode is not.
- If water baptism is not necessary for salvation, then what is necessary? N/A
- Can you please list out what a person must do to have his sins forgiven and be saved? Repent/Believe and receive biblical water baptism.
- Can you please list out what a person must do to lose his salvation? Deny the Gospel of Christ.
- Can you please list out what a person must do to regain his salvation? I do not know that he can.
- Jesus equated sin with legal debt (Matt. 6:12 & Luke 11:4). Do you agree or disagree that sin is a legal debt? AGREE.
- Do agree or disagree, that the sin debt was canceled by Jesus at the cross (Col. 2:14)? Agree.
- If you disagree that the sin debt was canceled at the cross, then what was canceled/blotted out? N/A
- Do you agree or disagree that we are justified by faith (Rom. 5:1)? By faith alone, but not by faith that is alone.
- Do you agree or disagree that God grants us faith (Phil. 1:29)? Yes.
- Do you agree or disagree that when we have faith we are justified (Rom. 5:1; 3:28; 4:5)? Disagree.
SCRIPTURES - In Exodus 3:14-15, God says that his name is “I am.” Do you agree or disagree the name of God is “I am” (YHWH)? Agree.
- What is the name of the “Word” that was with God in John 1:1? Yehowshuwa = Yahweh the Savior.
- In Exodus 6:2-3 it says that God, who identified himself as YHWH, appeared to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob: Do you agree or disagree that God Almighty appeared to Abraham Isaac and Jacob? Agree.
- According to Jesus in John 6:46, no one has ever seen the Father. So, who were they seeing who is God Almighty but not God the Father in Exodus 6:2-3? The Angel of the LORD/the Word of God/the intelligible God/the knowable God.
- Jesus said in John 6:38, “For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.” If Jesus is a person, and he said he was sent from heaven, then did he not have to preexist in order to be sent from heaven? First, in this text Jesus does not say he was “sent from heaven” Insead, it says He came down from heaven. This much is true. He was “sent” from His baptism. Second, he did pre-exist as God the Father.
- In John 14:23 Jesus said, “If anyone loves Me, he will keep My word; and My Father will love him, and We will come to him and make Our abode with him.” When Jesus says, “we” who was He referring to? The human Christ is in possession of a human will, Intellect, and emotion. Thus, He could speak in such a manner.
- In Genesis 11:7 God says, “Come, let Us go down and there confuse their language.” In Genesis 1:26, God says, “Let us make man in our image.” In Isaiah 44:24, God says that he makes all things by himself, alone. Why would God refer to himself in the plural in Genesis 11:7 and 1:26? The plenitude of God requires a self reference in the plural.
- Why did Jesus not say, “Not My will, but My will be done?” if there is only one person and one will involved when He was praying in Luke 22:42 & Matt. 26:39. This is your problem. According to your view your god seems to have multiple wills. For us the human Christ was praying for the will of the Father to be done and not his will (the will of the “man”, who’s will was to live and not die.)
- Is Acts 2:38 a formula for salvation? Yes, if we can say that repentance is synonymous to believing.
- In Acts 10:44-48, the Gentiles were glorifying God, and speaking in tongues and had already received the Holy Spirit just as the apostles had. But, they had not yet been baptized. Were they not saved until they get baptized? They had not completely obeyed the Gospel until they were water baptized. I ask you, can one who has not completely obeyed the Gospel be saved? The Lord’s church has, from ancient time, recognized the “baptism of intent.” This may be applied here.
Thank you for an opportunity to respond to your very sensible questions.
Peace to your house.
☩ Jerry L Hayes
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